Porcelain must not be contaminated by handling between which two stages

Porcelain must not be contaminated by handling between which two stages:

a.Pre-soldering and heat treatment
b.Heat treatment and opaque /bake/ stages
c.Opaque and bisque stages
d.Bisque and glazing stages
e.First opaque bake and second opaque bake

Ans.  B 

  The casting should be carefully cleaned to ensure a strong bond to porcelain. Metal is heated in porcelain furnace to burn off any remaining impurity & to form a thin oxide layer which is essential for the formation of the porcelain metal bond.The surface can be cleaned adequately by finishing with clean ceramic bonded stones or sintered diamonds. Final sandblasting with high purity alumina abrasives ensures that the porcelain is bonded to a clean & mechanically retentive surface.Porcelain build up & firing stage: complete cleanliness is required at this stage

Drug not affecting CSF synthesis & absorption

Drug not affecting CSF synthesis & absorption and also does not affect ICP is:-

A. Ketamine
B. Thiopentone sodium
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Halothane

Ans. C. Nitrous Oxide.

 Nitrous Oxide.

- It increases cerebral blood flow and volume hence producing
- a mild elevation of intracranial pressure
Thiopentone sodium
- It causes vasoconstriction of CNS blood vessels,
- Thus decreasing cerebral blood volume and intracranial pressure ICP. 
Ketamine
- Increases the cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure
- Thus, ketamine is relatively contraindicated in patients with an intracranial mass or increased ICP
Halothane
- It causes dilation of cerebral vessels, thus
- Decreases cerebral vascular resistance and increases cerebral blood flow
- Hence, the intracranial pressure rises
Nitrous Oxide does not affect CSF dynamics and ICP as compared to the other anesthetic drugs in the question. Hence it is the best possible answer. 

BIO Supplement for COMEDK MDS

COMEDK MDS entrance preparations | Gettler’s test

Gettler’s test is done for death by: 

A. Drowning
B. Hanging
C. Bums
D. Phosphorus poisoning

Ans. A. Drowning

Difference of chloride contents of blood in the right and the left hearts > 25% difference is significant. – Gettler’s test^Q.

i. In fresh water drowning water pass from the lungs to the blood and the blood gets diluted by as much as 72% in 3 minutes- hypervolemia& hemodilution → hemolysis → increase K+ level Hyperkalemia.  → heart stops in diastole. left side of heart shows– chloride content up to 50% lower than usual. , more dangerous than sea-water drowning

About Osteoporosis | Crack AIPGDEE

All of the following statement is correct for osteoporosis except

a) reduction in bone mass per unit volume
b) normal serum calcium level
c) more common in women
d) decreased calcium and phosphate level in serum biochemistry

Ans d: a reduction in bone mass per unit volume   Serum biochemistry indices are normal. There is skeletal rarefaction and low trauma fractures often occur, including vertabral fractures..Women are more likely to be affected than men. In the edentulous patient with osteoporosis the residual alveolar ridges may resorb more rapidly.

MDS entrance preaparations | Medullay thyroid carcinoma

All are component of men type 1 except 

a.     Meducaly carcinoma of thyroid
b.     Parathyroid adenoma
c.     Islet cell hyperplasia          
d.     Pheochormocytoma

The correct answer is A: Medullay thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma are associated with two majot syndrome men 2a and men 2b. Men 2a is combination of mtc,hyperparathyroidism and pheochromocytoma men 2b is the combination of mtc,pheochromocytoma mucosal neuroma ,intestinal ganglioneuroma and marfanoid features

MDS entrance preaparations | Denture base that resists dislodgement of denture

The relationship of the denture base that resists dislodgement of denture in horizontal direction is:

A. Stability                          

B. Pressure

C. Support                          

D. Retention

       Ans. (A) Stability: Let’s discuss each option separately: A. Stability:

Stability refers especially to the ability of denture to resist horizontal forces that tend to alter the relationship between the denture base and its supporting foundation in a horizontal or rotatory direction.

The rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance | Crack AIPGDEE

The rectangular wire used in edgewise appliance in primarily meant for:

A. Correction of crown root position

B. Increasing the strength of wire

C. Correction of Arch-length Deficiency

D. Used for correction of anterior crowding

Ans. (A) Correction of crown root position: 

Edgewise : “To overcome the deficiencies of the ribbon arch, Angle reoriented the slot from vertical to horizontal and inserted a rectangular wire rotated 90 degrees to the orientation it had withthe ribbon arch-thus the name “edgewise”. The dimensions of the slot were altered to 22 X 28 mils, and a 22 X 28 precious metal wire was used. These dimensions were arrived at after extensive experimentation and allowed excellent control of crown and root position in all three planes of space. 

Cephalometric analysis MCQ | MDS Entrance Preparations

Cephalometric analysis are used to evaluate growth changes by superimposing on:

A.    Sella-nasion plane             

B. Mandibular plane
C.    F-H plane                          
D. Occlusal plane

    Ans. (A) Sella-nasion plane:  “Sella-nasion plane/SN planerepresents the anterior cranial base. The growth of anterior cranial base is completed much earlier compared to facial structures so the SN plane is taken as most stable area to compare the growth changes of facial structure and jaws” The following lines form Proffit will explain the answer: Cranial base superimposition, allows the relationship of maxilla and mandible to the cranium to be evaluated. In general the most useful approach is to superimpose on the SNP line, registering the template over the patients tracing at nasion rather than sella if there is difference in cranial base length.

The KRI paste Composition | AIPGDEE Preparation MCQs with Explanations

The KRI paste is composed of:

A. Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and menthol
B. Iodoform and ZOE
C. Parachlorophenol, camphor and menthol
D. Calcium hydroxide and Iodoform.

  Ans. (A) Iodoform, camphor, parachlorophenol and menthol: 

• Walkhoff paste: parachlorophenol. Camphor. Menthol.                   

• KRI paste: lodoform, Camphor, parachlorophenol, menthol.

• Maisto: Zinc oxide, Iodoform, thymol, chlorophenol, camphor, lanolin.  

• Vitapex: Calcium hydroxide, iodoform, oily additives.

Patient with suppurative periodontitis | AIPGDEE Preparation MCQs with Explanations

A 45-year-old, overweight man presents with suppurative periodontitis. As you review his history, he tells you that he is always hungry, drinks water almost every hour, and awakens four times each night to urinate. What systemic disease is most likely a cofactor in his periodontal disease?

a. Hypo thyroidism 
b. Hyper thyroidism
c. Diabetes mellitus 
d. Tuber culosis

The correct answer is C: The combination of polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, and suppurative periodontal disease should raise a strong suspicion of diabetes mellitus. A fasting blood glucose test is the most efficacious screen.

Oral lesions of Tuberculosis | MDS entrance preaparations

What is the most typical presentation of the oral lesions of tuberculosis?

a. Mucosal lesions with a cobblestone appearance 

b. Nonhealing ulcer
c. Mucositis 
d. Erythematous bullseye

The correct answer is B: The oral lesions of tuberculosis are thought to result from the presence of organisms brought into contact with the oral mucosa by sputum. A nonhealing ulcer, which is impossible to differentiate clinically from carcinoma, is the most common presentation in the mouth. Ulcers are most consistently present on the lateral borders of the tongue and may have a purulent center. Lymphadenopathy also may be present. Diagnosis is made by histologic examination and demonstration of organisms in the tissue.

ANB angle of 2 degree | MDS entrance preaparations

The ANB angle of 2 degree usually indicates:

A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors

         Ans. (A) It is normal angle and represents relationship of alveolar process of mandible

                  A.N.B angle

        This angle is formed by the intersection of lines joining nasion to point A and nasion to point B

     • It denotes the relative position of the maxilla and mandible to each other                         

     • The mean value is 2°.

   • An increase in this angle is indicative of a class II skeletal tendency while an angle that is less than normal or a negative angle is suggestive of a skeletal class III relationship.

Dental casting gypsum bonded investment material | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum bonded investment material:

A. It is used for cast metal alloys

B. 50 - 65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate
C. The investment material is not heated above 700° temperature
D. Heating above 700° of investment causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate.

        Ans. (B) 50 -65% of gypsum changes to form a-hemihydrate: 

The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are ot-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz or crysloballite which are allolropic forms of silica.

Periodontal disease | Crack AIPGDEE

Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease?

a. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis
b. A communicable disease
c. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healing
d. ZoE paste will accelerate healing


The correct answer is D: Zoë paste (Co-Pak) does accelerate healing by providing a sort of protection layer and anti inflammatory environment.

Cafe au lait spots | MDS entrance preaparations

Where Cafe au lait spots are seen

a. Von Willebrand's disease 
b. Darrier’s diseaase 
c. Neurofibromatosis 
d. Lichen planus

The correct answer is c: Neurofibromatosis is a genetically-transmitted disease in which nerve cells (Schwann cells) grow tumors (neurofibromas) that may be harmless or may cause serious damage by compressing nerves and other tissues. The tumors may cause bumps under the skin, colored spots, skeletal problems, pressure on spinal nerve roots, and other neurological problems.

       Neurofibromatosis is autosomal dominant.also called as Recklinghausen disease.

Tracts is concerned with pain & temperature | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following tracts is concerned with pain & temperature?
A. Pyramidal tract            
B. Anterior spinothalamic tract          
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract        
D. Vestibular tract

Ans. C 

   Proprioceptive information is transmitted up the spinal cord in the dorsal columns, majority of the proprioceptive inputs goes to the cerebellum but some passes to the cortex also (conscious Proprioception). There is some evidence that proprioceptive information passes to consciousness in the antero-lateral columns of the spinal cord. Conscious awareness of position of various parts of the body in space depends in part on impulses from sense organ in and around the joints. The organs involved are slowly adapting spray endings, structure that resemble golgi tendon organs, & probably pacinian sorpuscles in the synovia & ligament.

Cardiac condition is associated with highest risk for Infective Endocat'ditis?

Which Cardiac condition is associated with highest risk for Infective Endocat'ditis? 

A. Mitral Valve prolapsed without regurgitation. 

B.Ventricular Septal defect
C.Previous History of Endocarditis.
D.Coronary artery disease

Ans. (C) 

High risk

Prosthetic heart valve

Previous history of endocarditis

Probable Moderate risk

Mitral varve prolapse

Undiagnosed heart murmurs

Other risk factors include intravenous drug use, male gender. African-American race, and

pulmonary artery catheterization,

High Risk Cardiac lesions for which Endocarditis Prophylaxis is advised before Dental Procedure-

1. Prosthetic heart valve. 

2. Prior endocarditis 

3. Unrepaired cynotic congenital heart disease, including palliative

shunts or conduits, 

4. Completely repaired congenital heart defects during the 6 months after re-pair.

 5. Incompletely

repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects adjacent to prosthetic material

 6. Valvulopathy developing

after cardiac transplantation.     

Acute Rheumatic Fever | MDS entrance preaparations

which Of the following is true, regarding Acute Rheumatic Fever? 

A. Invariably associated with mitral valve. 

B. Earliest symptom is patnrut migratory arthritis.
C. Sydenham Chorea is us ually present.
D. It follows streptococcal skin infection.

Ans. (B) 

For Option (A)- Carditis- This is a 'pancarditis' that involves the myocardium and pericardium to varying degrees; its incidence decreases \Nith increasing age, ranging from 90% at 3 years to around 30% in adolescence.

For Option (B)- Arthritis .. This is usually an early feature that tends to occur when streptococcal antibody titres are high. It is the most common major manifestation and is characterized by acute, painful, asymmetric and migratory inflammation of the large joints (typically the knee, ankles, elbows and wrist),   

For Option (B), (D)-Cldnical Features- ARF is a multisystem disorder that typically follows an 

episode of streptococcal pharyngJi'tis characteristically occurs 2-3 weeks after the initial attack of pharyngitis but the patient may give no history of sore throat. Arthritis occurs in approximately 76% of the patients.

For Option (C)- Syde nham's Chorea (St Vitus dance) It occur up to one-third of cases and common in females 

Pressure of CSF | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

Pressure of CSF is:-

A. 50 to 180 mm H2O            
B. 50 to 180 mm Hg
C. 180 to 280 mm H2O          
D. 180 to 280 mm Hg

Ans. A

         The normal pressure in the cerebrospinal fluid system when one is lying in a horizontal position averages 130 millimeters of water (10 mm Hg). CSF fills the ventricles and subarachnoid space. In humans, the volume of CSF is about 150 mL and the rate of CSF production is about 550 mL/d. CSF is formed in the choroid plexuses and is absorbed through the arachnoid villi into veins

Spigelian hernia | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

Spigelian hernia is: 

A. Intraparietal internal hernia 
B. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line 
C. Hernia through the lineaalba above or below the umbilicus.
D. Posterior abdominal wall hernia

Ans. B. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line.       

Spigelian hernia:

•This is a variety of interparietal hernia occurring at the level of the arcuate line.

•It is very rare with only 1000 cases reponed in the literature.

•The fundus of the sac, clothed by exrtaperitoneal fat, may lie beneath the internal oblique muscle where it is virtually impalpable.

•More often it advances through that muscle and spreads out like a mushroom between the internal and external oblique muscles, and gives rise to a more evident swelling.

•The patient is often corpulent and usually over 50 years of age, men and women being equally affected. Typically, a soft, reducible mass will be encountered lateral to the rectus muscle and below the umbilicus.

•Diagnosis is confirmed by CT or USG. the latter having the advantage of being able to stand the patient upright ifno defect is visible in the reclining position.

•Owing to the rigid fascia surrounding the neck, strangulation may occur.

•Treatment.

o Operation. If a defect is palpable.a muscle-splitting approach is used.

o, Ext oblique, Int oblique, Transverse abd retracted laterally during surgery.

Brocas Area | MDS entrance preaparations

Brocas area is involved in - 1

A. Speech                                
B. Word interpretation
C. Language comprehension  
D. None of the above

Ans. A) Broca's area processes the information received from Wernicke's area (comprehension of auditory and visual information) into a detailed and coordinated pattern for vocalization and then projects the pattern via a speech articulation area in the insula to the motor cortex, which initiates the appropriate movements of the lips, tongue, and larynx to produce speech.

Thrombosis | MDS entrance preaparations

Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary sinus, which of the following cardiac veins might remain normal in diameter A. Middle cardiac vein
B. Anterior cardiac vein
C.Small cardiac vein
D. Oblique cardiac vein

Ans. B. Anterior cardiac vein

- Anterior cardiac veins drain directly into the right atrium and not the coronary sinus, hence are spared in this particular patient.

- The coronary sinus is the main drainage channel of venous blood from the myocardium. It is the main derivative of the left horn of the sinus venosus of fetal life. It is situated within the atrioventricular groove coronary sulcus.  on the posterior surface of the heart between the left atrium and ventricle.

- It commences towards the left of the groove at the point at which it receives the oblique vein of the left atrium. It passes to the right and inferiorly to terminate by draining into the right atrium at the coronary sinus orifice.

- The coronary sinus is drained into by a number of smaller veins; typically, from left to right along its course, the:

Great cardiac vein* from left side. 

Oblique vein of the left atrium from superior side. 

Posterior vein of the left ventricle

Middle cardiac vein** from inferior side. 

Small cardiac vein from right side. 

The great cardiac vein is the largest lumen wise.  of the veins draining into the coronary sinus from the myocardium. It commences near to the apex of the heart in the anterior part of the interventricular groove. It passes superiorly in the company of the anterior interventricular artery LAD. .

-At the junction of the interventricular groove with the atrioventricular groove, it enters the latter and passes to the left in the company of the circumflex artery. It passes over the left border of the heart within the atrioventricular groove to merge with the left end of the coronary sinus.

- The great cardiac vein drains the territory supplied by the left coronary artery e.g. the left atrium and ventricle. 

Most frequent oral manifestation in Cooley’s (Thalassemia major) anemia | MDS entrance preaparations

The most frequent oral manifestation in Cooley’s (Thalassemia major) anemia is:
a. Spacing of teeth                        b. Saddled nose
c. Bimaxillary protrusion             d. Open bite

Ans. C: Bimaxillary protrusion and malocclusion are frequent in thalassemia major cases.  Other dentofacial abnormalities include spacing of teeth, marked, open bite, prominent malar bones and saddle nose.

Glenoid (articular) fossa | MDS entrance preaparations

The glenoid (articular) fossa in which the mandibular condyle articulates is a depression within which cranial bone?

a. Sphenoid
b. Zygomatic
c. Temporal
d. Parietal

Ans. C. The names for the fossa include mandibular, articular, glenoid, and temporal. This is due to the location of the fossa wholly within the temporal bone. The anterior border of the fossa is the articular eminence of the temporal bone, and the posterior border is the tympanic section of the temporal bone. Slightly more posterior is the mastoid process and associated styloid process. So the entire eminence is a temporal bone feature.

Largest reserve of energy in body | MDS entrance preaparations

Largest reserve of energy is body stored as:

A. Liver glycogen                  
B. Muscle glycogen                  
C. Adipose tissue                  
D. Blood glucose

Ans. C 

Adipose tissue

·         Fatty acid stored in adipose tissue in form of neutral TAG, serve as the body’s major fuel storage reserve. It is highly concentrate source of energy as it is highly reduced, largely anhydrous and yield 9 kcal/gm energy (as compared to 4 kcal/g of protein & carbohydrate).

·         Fat stores constitue 75% of energy reserve and protein stores 25%. Glycogen is the smallest resource of stored energy. Metabolic fuel stores in 70 kg man are

·         Fat: 15 kg = 135, Kcal > Protein: 6 kg = 24, 000 Kcal > Glycogen: 0.2 kg = 800 Kcal.

Only sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine | MDS entrance preaparations

The only sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is:
A. Xylose      
B. Mannose      
C. Glucose      
D. Ribose

Ans. C 

·   Final products of carbohydrate digestion in intestinal chyme are glucose & fructose.

·   The glucose the glucose transport in intestine is an example of secondary active transport i.e., the energy of glucose transport is provided indirectly by active transport of Na+ out of cell. Because glucose & Na+ share the same contransporter (symport) the sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT, Na+ - glucose cotransporter, cross cell membrane 12 times), the high concentration of Na+ on mucosal surface of cells facilitate & low concentration inhibit hexose sugar influx into epithelial cells.

Guiding (nonsupporting) Cusp | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

An example of a guiding (nonsupporting) cusp is:

a. distolingual of #30
b. mesiobuccal of #18
c. distolingual of #14
d. lingual of #5

Ans. A. Note that the holding (supporting, occluding) cusps of the posterior dentition are the lingual (palatal) cusps of the maxillary teeth and the buccal (facial) cusps of the mandibular teeth. Buccals of maxillary teeth and linguals of mandibular teeth are guiding cusps. distolingual of #30 is the lingual of a mandibular first molar, so it is not a holding cusp, and is a guiding cusp. mesiobuccal of #18 is a buccal of a mandibular molar and is a holding cusp. distolingual of #14 is a lingual cusp of a maxillary molar and is a holding cusp. lingual of #5 is the lingual of a maxillary premolar and is a holding cusp.

Sublingual salivary gland

Sublingual salivary gland lies:

A. Superior to Mylohyoid
B. Inferior to Mylohyoid
C. Deep to Geniohyoid
D. In the vestibule

.  Ans. (A) Superior to Mylohyoid: (Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 3rd Ed, Vol lll/Pg 133) Repeat AIPG 2007- Q9

Sublingual salivary gland: • It is the smallest of the three major salivary glands  • It is “Almond shaped”  • It weighs about 3-4 g

• Lies above the Mylohyoid, below the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, medial to the sublingual fossa of the mandible & lateral to the Geniohyoid.

• About 15 ducts emerge from the gland. Most of them emerge open directly in to the floor of the mouth on the summit of the sublingual fold.

The Buffering capacity of a buffer | AIPGDEE MCQ with Explanations

The Buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to A. 0.5pKa  
B. pKa  
C. pKa+1  
D. 2pKa


Ans is B.
“At values close to pKa the buffer solution resists changes in pH most effectively.” • Buffers resist a change in pH when proteins are produced or consumed. • Maximum buffering capacity occurs at I pH unit on either side of pKa. • Physiologic buffers include bicarbonates, orthophosphates and proteins.

New Drugs 2015

New Drugs 2015

• Edoxaban - Oral factor Xa inhibitor approved for DVT, pulmonary embolism and stroke prophylaxis in atrial fibrillation.
• Secukinumab - Anti IL 17 Ab approved for Psoriasis
• Isavuconazonium - Azole approved for invasive Aspergillosis and mucormycosis
• Avibactam - With Ceftazidime
• Panobinostat - Histone deacetylase inhibitor for multiple myeloma.
• Cobicistat - Its a CYP3A4 inhibitor approved for use with Atazanavir and Darunavir to increase their half life.
• Palbociclib - Cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor approved for ER/PR positive breast in post menopausal female in combination with aromatase inhibitor.
• Lenvatinib - VEGFR TK inhibitor approved for recurrent or metastatic thyroid ca refractory to I131.
• Nivolumab - Anti PD1 receptor Ab approved for metastatic squammous non small cell ca lung.
• Dinutuximab - Anti GD2 glycolipid Ab approved for neuroblastoma.
• Ivabridine - Inhibitor of If current in SA node... Approved for CHF and angina.
• Sacubitril - Inhibitor of neutral endopeptidase (neprilysin), combined with ARB for treatment of CHF.
• Alirocumab - Anti PCSK 9 Ab used to decrease LDL in familial hypercholesterolemia and CVS atherosclerotic disorders. PCSK 9 is a protein responsible for LDL receptors degradation in liver.
• Sonidegib - Hedgehog pathway inhibitor used for treatment of basal cell carcinoma recurrence after surgery and radiotherapy.
• Flibanserin - 5HT 1A agonist and 5HT 2C antagonist for hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD).
• Paritaprevir - It is a Hep C virus protease inhibitor.
• Daclatasvir, Ombitasvir - NS5A protein inhibitors of hep C virus.
1. Daclatasvir is approved to be used with sofosbuvir for Hep C infection.
2. Ombitasvir is approved to be used with paritaprevir and ritonavir for Hep C virus infection.
• Brexpiprazole - Atypical antipsychtic approved for treatment of schizophrenia and depression

Post-transcriptional modification of RNA | Crack AIPGDEE

Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of RNA?
A.   Splicing                              
B. 5'- capping
C.   3'-poly adenylation            
D. Glycosylation

    Glycosylation has not been mentioned as a post-transistional modification of RNA. 5' - capping: Is required both for efficient translation initiation and protection of 5' - end of MRNA from attack by 5'-3' exonucleases. 3' - poly adenylatlon: Added to 3'-end of mRNA molecules in a post transcriptional processing step. This appears to protect the 3'-end of mRNA from 3' - 5' exo-nuclease attack. Splicing (Removal of introns): Introns or intervening sequences that do not code for proteins are removed. This splicing occurs in the nucleus and serves to bring the exons together. After removal of introns the mature mRNA molecules leave the nucleus.

“Syncope” occurrence | AIPGDEE Guide

“Syncope” occurs while operative processes due to:
A. Cerebral edema  
B. Cerebral hyperemia
C. Cerebral hypoxia              
D. Cerebral degeneration

.  Ans. (C) Cerebral hypoxia: 

- Cerebral syncope is caused by a sudden drop in cardiac output and cerebral perfusion due to an arrhythmia or a mechanial problem.

- Inappropriate Vasodilatation also causes symptoms by reducing cerebral perfusion”- 

- Syncope or fainting is perhaps the most frequently complication associated with local anesthesia in the dental office.

- This is a form of neurogenic shock and is cause by cerebral ischemia secondary to vasodilatation or an increase in the peripheral vascular bed, with a corresponding drop in blood pressure

The non-cariogenic substitute used to replace the cariogenic diet

The non-cariogenic substitute used to replace the cariogenic diet is
A. Lactose                      
B. Glucose
C. Cooked Starch      
D. Sorbito

Ans. (D) Sorbitol: “The alcohol derivatives have been added as substitute for cariogenic diet”

Sugars present in the human diet is considered the most caries promoting

Which of the following sugars present in the human diet is considered the most caries promoting?
A.   Sucrose
B.   Fructose
C.   Lactose                    
D.   Glucose

       Ans. (A) Sucrose:
• The patient diet and dental caries activity are related. From the dietetic view point, dental caries widely accepted as being caused by the ingestion of fermentable carbohydrates, particularly sucrose.

• Fermentable carbohydrates and more specifically sucrose are rarely eaten as such. They are eaten as components of foods that contain other ingredients and have different textures.

• The cariogenic potential of foods containing sucrose, have the ability to

- Be retained by teeth        - Form acids          - Dissolve enamel         - Neutralize or buffer acids.

Primordial prevention | AIPGDEE Guidance

       Primordial prevention is used to:

     A. Prevent development of risk factor in the community.

     B. Prevent the transmission of diseases.

     C. Prevent the development of diseases.

     D. To establish the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

        Ans. (A) - Prevent development of risk factor in the community 

• Primordial Prevention a new concept is receiving special attention in the prevention of chronic diseases. *

• This primary prevention in its purest sense, that is prevention of the emergence or development of risk factor in countries or population groups in which they have not appeared.

• For example, many adult health problems (e.g. obesity, hypertension) have their early origins in childhood, because this is the time when lifestyles are formed (for example, smoking, eating patterns, physical exercise)

• In primordial prevention, efforts are directed towards discouraging children from adopting harmful lifestyles. The main intervention in primordial prevention is through individual and mass education.

X-Rays a brief

X-Rays

X Rays have a partiular wavelength and energy value.
the ability of the radiation to penetrate material and being absorbed is dependent on material type and energy of the radiation.

Half value layer (HVL) - level of radiation at which radiation intensity becomes one half of that at the surface. which is dependent on voltage and filteration.

Xrays and / or gamma rays which have higher kilovoltage have shorter wavelength and higher penetrating powers..

Tachycardia and Hypoxia | PGI MCQs for MD MS Preparations

Tachycardia is caused by hypoxia due to:
A. Reflexely through peripheral chemoreceptors                
B. Diffuse vasodilatation
C. Through central chemoreceptor                                          
D. Secondarily after by hyperventilation

Ans. B 

·         In hypoxia, with the reticulum of PO2 cerebral blood flow increases (due to vasodilation) to maintain O2 delivery in the brain.

Effects of Hypoxia

·         Cerebral blood flow:

·         Increases if PaO2 decreases.

·         If ↓ PaO2 is associated with hyperventilation: cerebral blood flow falls & hypoxia intensified.

·         Synaptic discharge: Increases by directly stimulating the vasomotor center.

·         Lactic acidosis: In hypoxia a large proportion of pyruvate is reduced to lactic acid. (Glucose is broken down to pyruvate under condition & generates ATP)

Most common microorganism of oral flora | AIIMS MDS Preparations

Most common microorganism of oral flora are 

a) Aerobic streptococci b) Anaerobic streptococci 

c) Facultative streptococci d) B-hemolytic streptococci

Ans C. 

Facultative streptococci form the most numerous single group in the oral cavity

Averaging in most surveys nearly V2 the viable counts of saliva and dorsum of tungue and about J/4th of viable counts of plaque and gingival sulcus.

>- The pyogenic (hemolytic) varieties are usually scarce in the oral cavity this has been attributed to a salivary inhibitory factor distinct from lysozyme or hydrogen peroxide. The pyogenic streptococci isolated occasionally from the oral cavity probably derived frcnn the oronnsopharynx and should not be regarded as resident flora. By far the most abundant of oral streptococci are those considered in viridans gp. These were divided in two broad groups

i) Strept. salivarius

ii) Strept. mitis

Strept. salivarius - average about half the viable count of facultative streptococci from saliva or tungue scrapings.

This organism ordinarily numbers less than 1 % of viable count in plaque.

> Majority of other oral facultative streptococci are strep. mitis, mutans and sanguis.

> S.sanguis - makes up about V2 of the count of facultative streptococci in plaque, which seems to be their primary habitat - causes SABE

	Gingival crevice area	Dental plaque	tongue	saliva
Gram positive anaerobic cocci Streptococci s.salivarious Enterococci staphylococci	28.8 27.1 N.D 7.2 1.7	28.2 27.9 N.D    - 0.3	44.8 38.3 8.2 N.D 6.5	46.8 41.0 4.6 1.3 4.0
Gram(+)Anaerofcocci	7.4	12.6	4.2	13.0
Gram(-)fac.cocci	0.4	0.4	3.4	1.2
Gram(-)amaer cocci	10.7	6.4	16	15.9

So from the above references it is shown that facultative streptococci is the most common microorganism of oral  cavity.