ANB angle of 2 degree | MDS entrance preaparations

The ANB angle of 2 degree usually indicates:

A. A favorable relationship of maxillary alveolar base to Mandibular alveolar base
B. A favorable relationship of mandible to cranium.
C. Poor cranial growth
D. Upright incisors

         Ans. (A) It is normal angle and represents relationship of alveolar process of mandible

                  A.N.B angle

        This angle is formed by the intersection of lines joining nasion to point A and nasion to point B

     • It denotes the relative position of the maxilla and mandible to each other                         

     • The mean value is 2°.

   • An increase in this angle is indicative of a class II skeletal tendency while an angle that is less than normal or a negative angle is suggestive of a skeletal class III relationship.

Dental casting gypsum bonded investment material | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following is not true about casting gypsum bonded investment material:

A. It is used for cast metal alloys

B. 50 - 65% of gypsum changes to form α-hemihydrate
C. The investment material is not heated above 700° temperature
D. Heating above 700° of investment causes formation of sulphur dioxide from copper sulphate.

        Ans. (B) 50 -65% of gypsum changes to form a-hemihydrate: 

The essential ingredients of the dental inlay investment employed with the conventional gold casting alloys are ot-hemihydrate of gypsum, quartz or crysloballite which are allolropic forms of silica.

Periodontal disease | Crack AIPGDEE

Which of the following statement is correct for a periodontal disease?

a. The finger pressure is enough for mobility diagnosis
b. A communicable disease
c. X ray after intra alveolar surgery is sufficient for diagnosis healing
d. ZoE paste will accelerate healing


The correct answer is D: Zoë paste (Co-Pak) does accelerate healing by providing a sort of protection layer and anti inflammatory environment.

Cafe au lait spots | MDS entrance preaparations

Where Cafe au lait spots are seen

a. Von Willebrand's disease 
b. Darrier’s diseaase 
c. Neurofibromatosis 
d. Lichen planus

The correct answer is c: Neurofibromatosis is a genetically-transmitted disease in which nerve cells (Schwann cells) grow tumors (neurofibromas) that may be harmless or may cause serious damage by compressing nerves and other tissues. The tumors may cause bumps under the skin, colored spots, skeletal problems, pressure on spinal nerve roots, and other neurological problems.

       Neurofibromatosis is autosomal dominant.also called as Recklinghausen disease.

Tracts is concerned with pain & temperature | MDS entrance preaparations

Which of the following tracts is concerned with pain & temperature?
A. Pyramidal tract            
B. Anterior spinothalamic tract          
C. Lateral spinothalamic tract        
D. Vestibular tract

Ans. C 

   Proprioceptive information is transmitted up the spinal cord in the dorsal columns, majority of the proprioceptive inputs goes to the cerebellum but some passes to the cortex also (conscious Proprioception). There is some evidence that proprioceptive information passes to consciousness in the antero-lateral columns of the spinal cord. Conscious awareness of position of various parts of the body in space depends in part on impulses from sense organ in and around the joints. The organs involved are slowly adapting spray endings, structure that resemble golgi tendon organs, & probably pacinian sorpuscles in the synovia & ligament.

Cardiac condition is associated with highest risk for Infective Endocat'ditis?

Which Cardiac condition is associated with highest risk for Infective Endocat'ditis? 

A. Mitral Valve prolapsed without regurgitation. 

B.Ventricular Septal defect
C.Previous History of Endocarditis.
D.Coronary artery disease

Ans. (C) 

High risk

Prosthetic heart valve

Previous history of endocarditis

Probable Moderate risk

Mitral varve prolapse

Undiagnosed heart murmurs

Other risk factors include intravenous drug use, male gender. African-American race, and

pulmonary artery catheterization,

High Risk Cardiac lesions for which Endocarditis Prophylaxis is advised before Dental Procedure-

1. Prosthetic heart valve. 

2. Prior endocarditis 

3. Unrepaired cynotic congenital heart disease, including palliative

shunts or conduits, 

4. Completely repaired congenital heart defects during the 6 months after re-pair.

 5. Incompletely

repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects adjacent to prosthetic material

 6. Valvulopathy developing

after cardiac transplantation.     

Acute Rheumatic Fever | MDS entrance preaparations

which Of the following is true, regarding Acute Rheumatic Fever? 

A. Invariably associated with mitral valve. 

B. Earliest symptom is patnrut migratory arthritis.
C. Sydenham Chorea is us ually present.
D. It follows streptococcal skin infection.

Ans. (B) 

For Option (A)- Carditis- This is a 'pancarditis' that involves the myocardium and pericardium to varying degrees; its incidence decreases \Nith increasing age, ranging from 90% at 3 years to around 30% in adolescence.

For Option (B)- Arthritis .. This is usually an early feature that tends to occur when streptococcal antibody titres are high. It is the most common major manifestation and is characterized by acute, painful, asymmetric and migratory inflammation of the large joints (typically the knee, ankles, elbows and wrist),   

For Option (B), (D)-Cldnical Features- ARF is a multisystem disorder that typically follows an 

episode of streptococcal pharyngJi'tis characteristically occurs 2-3 weeks after the initial attack of pharyngitis but the patient may give no history of sore throat. Arthritis occurs in approximately 76% of the patients.

For Option (C)- Syde nham's Chorea (St Vitus dance) It occur up to one-third of cases and common in females 

Pressure of CSF | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

Pressure of CSF is:-

A. 50 to 180 mm H2O            
B. 50 to 180 mm Hg
C. 180 to 280 mm H2O          
D. 180 to 280 mm Hg

Ans. A

         The normal pressure in the cerebrospinal fluid system when one is lying in a horizontal position averages 130 millimeters of water (10 mm Hg). CSF fills the ventricles and subarachnoid space. In humans, the volume of CSF is about 150 mL and the rate of CSF production is about 550 mL/d. CSF is formed in the choroid plexuses and is absorbed through the arachnoid villi into veins

Spigelian hernia | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

Spigelian hernia is: 

A. Intraparietal internal hernia 
B. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line 
C. Hernia through the lineaalba above or below the umbilicus.
D. Posterior abdominal wall hernia

Ans. B. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line.       

Spigelian hernia:

•This is a variety of interparietal hernia occurring at the level of the arcuate line.

•It is very rare with only 1000 cases reponed in the literature.

•The fundus of the sac, clothed by exrtaperitoneal fat, may lie beneath the internal oblique muscle where it is virtually impalpable.

•More often it advances through that muscle and spreads out like a mushroom between the internal and external oblique muscles, and gives rise to a more evident swelling.

•The patient is often corpulent and usually over 50 years of age, men and women being equally affected. Typically, a soft, reducible mass will be encountered lateral to the rectus muscle and below the umbilicus.

•Diagnosis is confirmed by CT or USG. the latter having the advantage of being able to stand the patient upright ifno defect is visible in the reclining position.

•Owing to the rigid fascia surrounding the neck, strangulation may occur.

•Treatment.

o Operation. If a defect is palpable.a muscle-splitting approach is used.

o, Ext oblique, Int oblique, Transverse abd retracted laterally during surgery.

Brocas Area | MDS entrance preaparations

Brocas area is involved in - 1

A. Speech                                
B. Word interpretation
C. Language comprehension  
D. None of the above

Ans. A) Broca's area processes the information received from Wernicke's area (comprehension of auditory and visual information) into a detailed and coordinated pattern for vocalization and then projects the pattern via a speech articulation area in the insula to the motor cortex, which initiates the appropriate movements of the lips, tongue, and larynx to produce speech.

Thrombosis | MDS entrance preaparations

Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary sinus, which of the following cardiac veins might remain normal in diameter A. Middle cardiac vein
B. Anterior cardiac vein
C.Small cardiac vein
D. Oblique cardiac vein

Ans. B. Anterior cardiac vein

- Anterior cardiac veins drain directly into the right atrium and not the coronary sinus, hence are spared in this particular patient.

- The coronary sinus is the main drainage channel of venous blood from the myocardium. It is the main derivative of the left horn of the sinus venosus of fetal life. It is situated within the atrioventricular groove coronary sulcus.  on the posterior surface of the heart between the left atrium and ventricle.

- It commences towards the left of the groove at the point at which it receives the oblique vein of the left atrium. It passes to the right and inferiorly to terminate by draining into the right atrium at the coronary sinus orifice.

- The coronary sinus is drained into by a number of smaller veins; typically, from left to right along its course, the:

Great cardiac vein* from left side. 

Oblique vein of the left atrium from superior side. 

Posterior vein of the left ventricle

Middle cardiac vein** from inferior side. 

Small cardiac vein from right side. 

The great cardiac vein is the largest lumen wise.  of the veins draining into the coronary sinus from the myocardium. It commences near to the apex of the heart in the anterior part of the interventricular groove. It passes superiorly in the company of the anterior interventricular artery LAD. .

-At the junction of the interventricular groove with the atrioventricular groove, it enters the latter and passes to the left in the company of the circumflex artery. It passes over the left border of the heart within the atrioventricular groove to merge with the left end of the coronary sinus.

- The great cardiac vein drains the territory supplied by the left coronary artery e.g. the left atrium and ventricle. 

Most frequent oral manifestation in Cooley’s (Thalassemia major) anemia | MDS entrance preaparations

The most frequent oral manifestation in Cooley’s (Thalassemia major) anemia is:
a. Spacing of teeth                        b. Saddled nose
c. Bimaxillary protrusion             d. Open bite

Ans. C: Bimaxillary protrusion and malocclusion are frequent in thalassemia major cases.  Other dentofacial abnormalities include spacing of teeth, marked, open bite, prominent malar bones and saddle nose.

Glenoid (articular) fossa | MDS entrance preaparations

The glenoid (articular) fossa in which the mandibular condyle articulates is a depression within which cranial bone?

a. Sphenoid
b. Zygomatic
c. Temporal
d. Parietal

Ans. C. The names for the fossa include mandibular, articular, glenoid, and temporal. This is due to the location of the fossa wholly within the temporal bone. The anterior border of the fossa is the articular eminence of the temporal bone, and the posterior border is the tympanic section of the temporal bone. Slightly more posterior is the mastoid process and associated styloid process. So the entire eminence is a temporal bone feature.

Largest reserve of energy in body | MDS entrance preaparations

Largest reserve of energy is body stored as:

A. Liver glycogen                  
B. Muscle glycogen                  
C. Adipose tissue                  
D. Blood glucose

Ans. C 

Adipose tissue

·         Fatty acid stored in adipose tissue in form of neutral TAG, serve as the body’s major fuel storage reserve. It is highly concentrate source of energy as it is highly reduced, largely anhydrous and yield 9 kcal/gm energy (as compared to 4 kcal/g of protein & carbohydrate).

·         Fat stores constitue 75% of energy reserve and protein stores 25%. Glycogen is the smallest resource of stored energy. Metabolic fuel stores in 70 kg man are

·         Fat: 15 kg = 135, Kcal > Protein: 6 kg = 24, 000 Kcal > Glycogen: 0.2 kg = 800 Kcal.

Only sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine | MDS entrance preaparations

The only sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is:
A. Xylose      
B. Mannose      
C. Glucose      
D. Ribose

Ans. C 

·   Final products of carbohydrate digestion in intestinal chyme are glucose & fructose.

·   The glucose the glucose transport in intestine is an example of secondary active transport i.e., the energy of glucose transport is provided indirectly by active transport of Na+ out of cell. Because glucose & Na+ share the same contransporter (symport) the sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT, Na+ - glucose cotransporter, cross cell membrane 12 times), the high concentration of Na+ on mucosal surface of cells facilitate & low concentration inhibit hexose sugar influx into epithelial cells.

Guiding (nonsupporting) Cusp | AIPGDEE Preparations with Explanations

An example of a guiding (nonsupporting) cusp is:

a. distolingual of #30
b. mesiobuccal of #18
c. distolingual of #14
d. lingual of #5

Ans. A. Note that the holding (supporting, occluding) cusps of the posterior dentition are the lingual (palatal) cusps of the maxillary teeth and the buccal (facial) cusps of the mandibular teeth. Buccals of maxillary teeth and linguals of mandibular teeth are guiding cusps. distolingual of #30 is the lingual of a mandibular first molar, so it is not a holding cusp, and is a guiding cusp. mesiobuccal of #18 is a buccal of a mandibular molar and is a holding cusp. distolingual of #14 is a lingual cusp of a maxillary molar and is a holding cusp. lingual of #5 is the lingual of a maxillary premolar and is a holding cusp.

Sublingual salivary gland

Sublingual salivary gland lies:

A. Superior to Mylohyoid
B. Inferior to Mylohyoid
C. Deep to Geniohyoid
D. In the vestibule

.  Ans. (A) Superior to Mylohyoid: (Ref: B.D. Chaurasia, 3rd Ed, Vol lll/Pg 133) Repeat AIPG 2007- Q9

Sublingual salivary gland: • It is the smallest of the three major salivary glands  • It is “Almond shaped”  • It weighs about 3-4 g

• Lies above the Mylohyoid, below the mucosa of the floor of the mouth, medial to the sublingual fossa of the mandible & lateral to the Geniohyoid.

• About 15 ducts emerge from the gland. Most of them emerge open directly in to the floor of the mouth on the summit of the sublingual fold.

The Buffering capacity of a buffer | AIPGDEE MCQ with Explanations

The Buffering capacity of a buffer is maximum at pH equal to A. 0.5pKa  
B. pKa  
C. pKa+1  
D. 2pKa


Ans is B.
“At values close to pKa the buffer solution resists changes in pH most effectively.” • Buffers resist a change in pH when proteins are produced or consumed. • Maximum buffering capacity occurs at I pH unit on either side of pKa. • Physiologic buffers include bicarbonates, orthophosphates and proteins.

New Drugs 2015

New Drugs 2015

• Edoxaban - Oral factor Xa inhibitor approved for DVT, pulmonary embolism and stroke prophylaxis in atrial fibrillation.
• Secukinumab - Anti IL 17 Ab approved for Psoriasis
• Isavuconazonium - Azole approved for invasive Aspergillosis and mucormycosis
• Avibactam - With Ceftazidime
• Panobinostat - Histone deacetylase inhibitor for multiple myeloma.
• Cobicistat - Its a CYP3A4 inhibitor approved for use with Atazanavir and Darunavir to increase their half life.
• Palbociclib - Cyclin dependent kinase inhibitor approved for ER/PR positive breast in post menopausal female in combination with aromatase inhibitor.
• Lenvatinib - VEGFR TK inhibitor approved for recurrent or metastatic thyroid ca refractory to I131.
• Nivolumab - Anti PD1 receptor Ab approved for metastatic squammous non small cell ca lung.
• Dinutuximab - Anti GD2 glycolipid Ab approved for neuroblastoma.
• Ivabridine - Inhibitor of If current in SA node... Approved for CHF and angina.
• Sacubitril - Inhibitor of neutral endopeptidase (neprilysin), combined with ARB for treatment of CHF.
• Alirocumab - Anti PCSK 9 Ab used to decrease LDL in familial hypercholesterolemia and CVS atherosclerotic disorders. PCSK 9 is a protein responsible for LDL receptors degradation in liver.
• Sonidegib - Hedgehog pathway inhibitor used for treatment of basal cell carcinoma recurrence after surgery and radiotherapy.
• Flibanserin - 5HT 1A agonist and 5HT 2C antagonist for hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD).
• Paritaprevir - It is a Hep C virus protease inhibitor.
• Daclatasvir, Ombitasvir - NS5A protein inhibitors of hep C virus.
1. Daclatasvir is approved to be used with sofosbuvir for Hep C infection.
2. Ombitasvir is approved to be used with paritaprevir and ritonavir for Hep C virus infection.
• Brexpiprazole - Atypical antipsychtic approved for treatment of schizophrenia and depression